I think for the northern and western European provinces (Hispania, Gaul, parts of Germania) they probably did, because they had less of a centralized cultural identity to begin with.


I have a hard time believing though that Greeks, with all their history and culture would have ever identified as Roman over Greek. The same can be said for Egypt. I feel like they must have recognized that they were legally part of the Roman Empire, but only to the degree that for example Australia identifies as part of the British empire. Their identity would still rest entirely with their own country.


Any thoughts?